Quiz

Assessment Description

Complete Quiz 2. The quiz is timed, and you will have 40 minutes to complete the exam. Be sure to remain within the digital classroom and frequently click the Save (or Save and Next) button to ensure you are not timed out and that your work is saved.

 

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UserID: smorouasso@my.gcu.edu and Password: Colonels@me2016to

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Quiz

Assessment Description

Complete Quiz 1. The quiz is timed, and you will have 45 minutes to complete the exam. Be sure to remain within the digital classroom and frequently click the Save (or Save and Next) button to ensure you are not timed out and that your work is saved.

 

See my UserID in order to get access to the class:

UserID: smorouasso@my.gcu.edu and Password: Colonels@me2016

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Quiz

Assessment Description

Access the Quiz 2 attachment and answer each of the four questions. This is an open book quiz.  The answer to each question must be 100-125 words.  Complete by the end of Topic 2.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. A link to the LopesWrite technical support articles is located in Class Resources if you need assistance.

Attachments

SOC-100.Short-AnswerQuiz 2_1-8-18.docxopen-book

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Quiz

Kindly see the instructions in the document upload to Dropbox 

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Quiz

Quiz

Question 1 (1 point)

All of the following are the most common reasons that firms decide to globalize EXCEPT ________.

Question 1 options:

1)  lower costs

2)  supervising quality control methods

3)  make employees more productive

4)  to do things better

Question 2 (1 point)

All of the following are major areas in which an HR manager assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________.

Question 2 options:

1)  recruiting

2)  hiring

3)  strategic business planning

4)  compensation

Question 3 (1 point)

Which of the following is NOT one of the five main types of digital technologies driving the transfer of functionality from HR professionals to automation?

Question 3 options:

1)  Email

2)  Social media

3)  Mobile applications

4)  Cloud computing

Question 4 (1 point)

Roberto Sanchez has recently been hired by Slate Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president of human resources. Slate Pharmaceuticals has a history of a variety of significant problems within its HR department such as EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and employee confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With 20 years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Sanchez believes he can correct the major problems at Slate Pharmaceuticals.

Which of the following best supports the argument that Sanchez should create embedded HR units and assign relationship managers to each department within the company?

Question 4 options:

1)  Employees frequently complain about the inconsistent assistance they receive from the HR department due to its large size.

2)  The global nature of the firm makes it difficult for the HR department to effectively communicate corporate messages to employees scattered around the world.

3)  Centralized call centers would enable the HR department to provide specialized support on daily transactional activities.

4)  Line managers want to implement additional screening and evaluations to improve the quality of their subordinates.

Question 5 (1 point)

Which of the following human resource management specialties calls for collecting data to write job descriptions?

Question 5 options:

1)  job analyst

2)  job training specialist

3)  compensation manager

4)  EEO coordinator

Question 6 (1 point)

Which of the following is an aspect of “distributed” HR?

Question 6 options:

1)  more centralized HRM decisions

2)  HRM tasks redistributed to the company’s employees and line managers

3)  more paperwork

4)  HR professional embedded in all departments

Question 7 (1 point)

Which of the following refers to the authority a manager has to advise other managers or employees?

Question 7 options:

1)  staff authority

2)  line authority

3)  functional authority

4)  corporate authority

Question 8 (1 point)

Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota for his sales team. Which basic function of management best describes Larry’s actions?

Question 8 options:

1)  planning

2)  organizing

3)  controlling

4)  staffing

Question 9 (1 point)

Which defense requires showing that there is an overriding company-related purpose for a discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable?

Question 9 options:

1)  prima facie

2)  business necessity

3)  adverse impact

4)  mixed motive

Question 10 (1 point)

Which of the following is responsible for implementing Johnson administration Executive Orders 11246 and 11375?

Question 10 options:

1)  Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

2)  Pension Benefits Guarantee Corporation

3)  Occupational Safety and Health Administration

4)  Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs

Question 11 (1 point)

Judy was up for a promotion at Simpson Consulting when her supervisor, Will, encouraged her to develop a sexual relationship with him. He suggested that her promotion would be a sure thing if they were involved. When Judy declined his advances, Will fired her. Which of the following would Judy most likely be able to prove in court if she decided to sue Simpson Consulting?

Question 11 options:

1)  hostile environment created by supervisors

2)  hostile environment created by co-workers

3)  disparate treatment

4)  quid pro quo

Question 12 (1 point)

Which type of disability accounts for the greatest number of ADA claims?

Question 12 options:

1)  drug-related

2)  mental

3)  vision

4)  hearing

Question 13 (1 point)

Which of the following factors is NOT an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

Question 13 options:

1)  gender

2)  seniority

3)  production quality

4)  production quantity

Question 14 (1 point)

Uniform guidelines from the EEOC are recommended for employers to use in matters regarding all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Question 14 options:

1)  employee selection

2)  record keeping

3)  sexual harassment

4)  psychological testing

Question 15 (1 point)

According to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, it is unlawful to ________.

Question 15 options:

1)  sue an employer for age-based pay

2)  require employees to retire at age 65

3)  allow juries to determine age discrimination

4)  institute a minimum age for employees

Question 16 (1 point)

If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by which of the following?

Question 16 options:

1)  Department of Labor guidelines

2)  Sarbanes-Oxley Act

3)  Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

4)  Consumer Protection Act

Question 17 (1 point)

Winchester Rugs operates a Web site called www.buyrugsdirect.com, so Winchester Rugs is most likely using a strategy of ________.

Question 17 options:

1)  consolidation

2)  geographic expansion

3)  vertical integration

4)  concentration

Question 18 (1 point)

Which of the following provides a summary of a firm’s intended direction and shows, in broad terms, “what we want to become”?

Question 18 options:

1)  mission statement

2)  strategic plan

3)  vision statement

4)  marketing plan

Question 19 (1 point)

Which of the following questions would LEAST likely be answered by the use of workforce analytics software?

Question 19 options:

1)  Which departments need improvement?

2)  What hiring policies are standard in the industry?

3)  How many workers will the firm need in five years?

4)  Why do employees choose to leave the organization?

Question 20 (1 point)

High-performance work organizations are most likely characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Question 20 options:

1)  using more selection tests

2)  empowered front-line workers

3)  extensive training

4)  commitment to high production rates

Question 21 (1 point)

Which of the following refers to any factors that allow a company to differentiate its product or service from those of its competitors to increase market share?

Question 21 options:

1)  functional strategy

2)  competitive advantage

3)  distinctive competency

4)  related diversification

Question 22 (1 point)

MAX Computers manufactures affordable laptops, desktops, and tablets at its factory in Arizona. MAX has experienced a moderate amount of financial success, but upper management wants the firm to grow at a faster rate and become a bigger player in the highly competitive computer market. The firm’s greatest problems relate to its employees. Employee turnover is high—most employees at MAX leave within two years or less of being hired. In addition, the rate of productivity among employees is not as high as executives would like. The vice president of human resources is considering moving MAX towards a high-performance work system.

Which of the following best supports the argument that MAX should move towards a high-performance work system?

Question 22 options:

1)  MAX competitors regularly use benchmarking to compare their employees to those in other firms.

2)  MAX customers purchase new computers every two years according to online customer surveys.

3)  Outsourcing clerical tasks would enable MAX to raise employee salaries and increase productivity.

4)  Using advanced recruitment and hiring practices will allow MAX to improve employee productivity.

Question 23 (1 point)

Which term refers to software applications used to analyze and draw conclusions from HR data?

Question 23 options:

1)  data mines

2)  talent analytics

3)  HR scorecards

4)  digital dashboards

Question 24 (1 point)

Critical human resource tasks during mergers and acquisitions include all the following EXCEPT:

Question 24 options:

1)  retaining key talent

2)  merging the firms’ cultures

3)  choosing top management

4)  enforcing current rules

Question 25 (1 point)

During the job analysis process, it is important to ________ before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions.

Question 25 options:

1)  test job questionnaires on a small group of workers

2)  confirm the job activity list with employees

3)  select a sample of similar jobs to analyze

4)  assemble the job specifications list

Question 26 (1 point)

What is the primary benefit of using a position analysis questionnaire to gather data for a job analysis?

Question 26 options:

1)  providing the opportunity for employees to vent job frustrations

2)  sorting information for government statistics and records

3)  classifying jobs for the purpose of assigning salaries

4)  uncovering important yet infrequent job tasks

Question 27 (1 point)

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store’s employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position.

Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the manager should use a position analysis questionnaire to collect job analysis information?

Question 27 options:

1)  Compliance with EEO laws requires businesses to compile quantitative data.

2)  Management wants to develop a pay scale for all employees at Purrfect Pets.

3)  Purrfect Pets managers are unfamiliar with the typical routines of most employees.

4)  Managers believe that some Purrfect Pets employees are overlooking important daily tasks.

Question 28 (1 point)

All of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job analysis EXCEPT ________.

Question 28 options:

1)  work activities

2)  human behaviors

3)  performance standards

4)  employee benefits options

Question 29 (1 point)

The ________ lists a job’s specific duties as well as the skills and training needed to perform a particular job.

Question 29 options:

1)  organization chart

2)  job analysis

3)  work aid

4)  job description

Question 30 (1 point)

What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?

Question 30 options:

1)  job title

2)  job summary

3)  major functions or activities

4)  standards of performance

Question 31 (1 point)

What has been the most significant impact of modern technology on job analysis methods?

Question 31 options:

1)  Extensive use of the Internet by HR managers enables more people to telecommute from locations far from corporate headquarters.

2)  Corporate use of the Internet and intranet has enabled HR managers to distribute and collect job analysis surveys to employees in multiple geographic locations.

3)  Worker functions have changed as a result of modern technology, so the DOL procedure for data collection has been modified and categories have been altered.

4)  The ability to falsify information on Internet surveys has led to an increase in interviews and observations by HR managers to collect accurate job analysis information.

Question 32 (1 point)

Which of the following terms refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition?

Question 32 options:

1)  job rotation

2)  job enrichment

3)  job reengineering

4)  job enlargement

Question 33 (1 point)

What is the first step in succession planning?

Question 33 options:

1)  creating an applicant pool

2)  identifying and analyzing key position needs

3)  selecting who will fill key positions

4)  developing the strengths of current employees

Question 34 (1 point)

The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________.

Question 34 options:

1)  internal recruiting

2)  succession planning

3)  long-term forecasting

4)  advanced interviewing

Question 35 (1 point)

Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms?

Question 35 options:

1)  top-executive searches

2)  contingent-based searches

3)  on-demand recruiting services

4)  just-in-time recruiting services

Question 36 (1 point)

________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them.

Question 36 options:

1)  Recruitment

2)  Selection

3)  Job analysis

4)  Workforce planning

Question 37 (1 point)

Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates?

Question 37 options:

1)  mobility premiums

2)  Internet databases

3)  corporate intranets

4)  broad banding

Question 38 (1 point)

Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources?

Question 38 options:

1)  negligent hiring

2)  personnel planning

3)  human resource management

4)  alternative staffing

Question 39 (1 point)

Pablo wants to figure out likely future employment needs for Slate Industries by examining past organizational employment needs of the company. This is an example of:

Question 39 options:

1)  a qualification inventory

2)  ratio analysis

3)  succession planning

4)  trend analysis

Question 40 (1 point)

Succession planning requires making forecasts of in three steps: ________, develop inside candidates, assess and choose those who will fill the key position.

Question 40 options:

1)  identify key needs

2)  job specifications

3)  global trends

4)  labor relations

Question 41 (1 point)

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm’s success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.

Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests?

Question 41 options:

1)  Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws.

2)  Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development.

3)  Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture.

4)  Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

Question 42 (1 point)

Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations?

Question 42 options:

1)  searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant

2)  using a database to access information about the applicant’s credit history

3)  locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant

4)  using a search engine to find information about the applicant

Question 43 (1 point)

Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate’s ________.

Question 43 options:

1)  age

2)  marital status

3)  military service

4)  disability history

Question 44 (1 point)

For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Question 44 options:

1)  prove that the accused had access to the property

2)  document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph

3) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph

4)  subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

Question 45 (1 point)

________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.

Question 45 options:

1)  Retest estimate

2)  Equivalent form estimate

3)  Content validity estimate

4)  Internal comparison estimate

Question 46 (1 point)

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.

Question 46 options:

1)  using a new sample of employees

2)  administering additional tests

3)  evaluating the relationship between scores and performance

4)  developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

Question 47 (1 point)

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin’s core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm’s decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee’s uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.

Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process?

Question 47 options:

1)  Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry.

2)  Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry.

3)  Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements.

4)  Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register.

Question 48 (1 point)

Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl’s finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) ________ test.

Question 48 options:

1)  motor ability

2)  personality

3)  cognitive

4)  interest

Question 49 (1 point)

Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview.

Question 49 options:

1)  board

2)  panel

3)  serial

4)  mass

Question 50 (1 point)

What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time?

Question 50 options:

1)  structured interview

2)  unstructured interview

3)  situational interview

4)  behavioral interview

Question 51 (1 point)

How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview?

Question 51 options:

1)  1

2)  2

3)  3-6

4)  8-10

Question 52 (1 point)

Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to predict future job performance based on an applicant’s oral responses to oral inquiries?

Question 52 options:

1)  work sample simulation

2)  selection interview

3)  reference check

4)  arbitration

Question 53 (1 point)

Antone is applying for a job with Boscom Manufacturing as a chemical engineer. During the interview, Antone is asked the following question: “How does extreme heat affect hydrochloric acid?” The interviewer is most likely trying to assess Antone’s ________.

Question 53 options:

1)  motivation

2)  flexibility

3)  knowledge

4)  leadership

Question 54 (1 point)

Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool?

Question 54 options:

1)  telephone reference

2)  reference letter

3)  interview

4)  personality test

Question 55 (1 point)

In a stress interview, the interviewer ________.

Question 55 options:

1)  provides an applicant with a task to complete in a set amount of time

2)  tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity

3)  gives a word problem to see how the candidate thinks under pressure

4)  describes a hypothetical situation to assess how the applicant responds

Question 56 (1 point)

Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview?

Question 56 options:

1)  intelligence

2)  agreeableness

3)  conscientiousness

4)  emotional stability

Question 57 (1 point)

________ means collecting data about a group, department, or organization, and feeding the information back to the employees so they can analyze it and develop hypotheses about what the problems might be.

Question 57 options:

1)  Laboratory training

2)  Action research

3)  Group therapy

4)  Diversity training

Question 58 (1 point)

Which of the following involves a trainer in a central location teaching groups of employees at remote locations over cable broadband lines or the Internet?

Question 58 options:

1)  audiovisual-based instruction

2)  programmed learning

3)  vestibule training

4)  videoconferencing

Question 59 (1 point)

Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________.

Question 59 options:

1)  human resource management

2)  performance enhancement

3)  management development

4)  talent management

Question 60 (1 point)

Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement. Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm’s existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should use intelligent tutoring systems to provide training for loan officers?

Question 60 options:

1)  Current Wells Fargo employees indicate that they prefer to work at their own pace and have a variety of learning styles.

2)  Since Wells Fargo stores are spread throughout the country, the firm needs to provide training at a central location to a large group of current employees at once.

3)  Wells Fargo’s employee orientation program provides new employees with information about the history, culture, and vision of the firm.

4)  Wells Fargo’s board of directors sets training policies and works closely with HR to develop the most appropriate training programs for new employees.

Question 61 (1 point)

Which of the following best describes the first step in a performance analysis?

Question 61 options:

1)  comparing a person’s actual performance to the ideal performance

2)  investigating employee-related customer complaints

3)  evaluating supervisor performance reviews

4)  conducting job knowledge assessments

Question 62 (1 point)

Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process?

Question 62 options:

1)  holding on-the-job training sessions

2)  selecting employees for training

3)  preparing online training materials

4)  asking participants for feedback

Question 63 (1 point)

A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called ________.

Question 63 options:

1)  job instruction training

2)  programmed learning

3)  apprenticeship training

4)  coaching technique

Question 64 (1 point)

Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the ________ form of training.

Question 64 options:

1)  job rotation

2)  understudy

3)  job expansion

4)  informal learning

Question 65 (1 point)

Which of the follow is the best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals?

Question 65 options:

1)  keep critical incident logs

2)  require multiple appraisals

3)  impose a performance distribution

4)  reconsider the timing of the appraisal

Question 66 (1 point)

Which performance appraisal tools require a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work-related behavior?

Question 66 options:

1)  alternation ranking

2)  paired comparison

3)  critical incident

4)  graphic rating

Question 67 (1 point)

All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT ________.

Question 67 options:

1)  maintaining a diary of employees’ performance during the year

2)  using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings

3)  knowing the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal tools

4)  developing a plan to assist employees with performance improvement

Question 68 (1 point)

Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor’s performance anonymously?

Question 68 options:

1)  supplemental evaluation

2)  upward feedback

3)  paired evaluation

4)  peer evaluation

Question 69 (1 point)

Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee’s rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data?

Question 69 options:

1)  digital dashboard device

2)  electronic performance monitoring system

3)  Web-based management oversight device

4)  electronic performance support system

Question 70 (1 point)

Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Stacey most likely do next?

Question 70 options:

1)  create a final appraisal instrument

2)  develop performance dimensions

3)  reallocate the incidents

4)  rate the incidents

Question 71 (1 point)

The continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization’s goals is known as ________.

Question 71 options:

1)  strategic management

2)  performance analysis

3)  performance appraisal

4)  performance management

Question 72 (1 point)

All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT ________.

Question 72 options:

1)  explaining how subordinates can improve their performance

2)  basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors

3)  using subjective performance data for appraisals

4)  training supervisors how to conduct appraisals

Question 73 (1 point)

With a(n) ________, a supervisor and employee jointly merge the employee’s past performance, career preferences, and developmental needs into a formal career plan.

Question 73 options:

1)  career-oriented appraisal

2)  exit interview

3)  promotion

4)  employee qualification databank

Question 74 (1 point)

All of the following are true statements about retirement EXCEPT ________.

Question 74 options:

1)  most employees who plan to work after 65 must do so for financial reasons

2)  most employees expect to continue working after normal retirement age

3)  most employees who plan to work after 65 want a part-time position

4)  many retirement age workers want to stay active through working

Question 75 (1 point)

Which of the following terms refers to the lifelong series of activities that contribute to a person’s career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment?

Question 75 options:

1)  performance management

2)  career development

3)  career management

4)  career planning

Question 76 (1 point)

Employers benefit from offering career development programs to employees in all of the following ways EXCEPT ________.

Question 76 options:

1)  supporting recruitment efforts

2)  boosting employee commitment

3)  enhancing employee strengths

4)  facilitating performance analysis

Question 77 (1 point)

All of the following methods are used by firms to recruit and retain retirement-age workers EXCEPT ________.

Question 77 options:

1)  implementing phased retirement programs

2)  offering them flexible work arrangements

3)  using psychometric selection tests

4)  offering them part-time positions

Question 78 (1 point)

As an employer, what is the primary benefit of cutting a high turnover rate?

Question 78 options:

1)  selling stock

2)  saving money

3)  attracting applicants

4)  meeting legal obligations

Question 79 (1 point)

Tanya accused a male superior of sexual harassment. Later, Tanya was turned down for a promotion because the accused superior persuaded Tanya’s current supervisor not to promote Tanya. This is most likely an example of ________.

Question 79 options:

1)  demotion

2)  retaliation

3)  dissonance

4)  defensive behavior

Question 80 (1 point)

Dick’s Sporting Goods is a sports and fitness retailer with over 300 stores in 34 states. After beginning as a small bait and tackle shop in 1948, Dick’s has grown to become a leader in the sports and fitness retail industry. Many career opportunities are available in Dick’s in areas as diverse as IT, product development, merchandising, and store management. Top management at Dick’s realizes the importance of hiring and retaining quality employees. As a result, the firm has decided to implement policies, practices, and programs that support employees’ career needs.

Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the firm should institute a flexible career track program?

Question 80 options:

1)  Executive positions at Dick’s Sporting Goods are rewarded for a combination of seniority and competency.

2)  Situational interviews are used at Dick’s Sporting Goods to screen potential store managers.

3)  Executive positions at Dick’s Sporting Goods are predominantly held by men.

4)  Over half of all Dick’s Sporting Goods stores are run by female managers.

Question 81 (10 points)

What are the methods an applicant or employee can use to show that an employer’s procedures (such as a selection test) have an adverse impact on a protected group?

An applicant or employee can use one of the following method to show that an employer’s procedures have an adverse impact on a protected group:

1. Disparate rejection rate: In this method, rejection rate of applicants from protected group is compared with remaining applicants. Federal agencies use a 4/5ths rule to assess disparate rejection rates.

2. Standard deviation rule: This is a statistical measure of variability. This method can be used to describe the difference between the number of applicants from protected group who were expected to be hired and those who were actually hired should be less than two times of standard deviations.

3. Restricted policy: This method can be used to show that employer’s hiring policy intentionally or intentionally discriminate against protected group.

4. Population comparison method: This method compares the percentage of employees from protected group with the percentage of employees from protected group in the labor market.

Question 82 (10 points)

What three ways can selection interviews be classified? How does each classification affect an interview?

Selection interviews can be classified in following three ways:

1. According to the way interview is structured

2. Based on the content

3. Based on how interview is administered

An interview can be structured in many ways, ranging from unstructured to structured interview. Content classifications of interview are situational or behavioral. Examples of content classification are job-related interview, and structured interview. An interview can be administered in many ways. An interview can be administered by single person, a panel of interviewers, or it can be computer-administered interview.

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